If Jesus Christ is God in the flesh, why did He assert that He is the “Son of God”? While I wholeheartedly believe that Jesus was God incarnate, I also think that He had to experience perfect obedience in order to qualify as the Savior for fallen humans. The only scenario that would allow this to occur is to have God submit to a higher authority. So God came to earth in the role of a son who, in order to be the perfect sacrifice for our sin, had to do all that the higher authority was telling Him to do and say. This is one reason He could say to an inquisitive Philip, “If you have seen Me you have seen the Father” (John 14:9). Jesus also claimed that He does only what the Father tells Him to do (John 5:19; 7:16). This may explain why Jesus also said that the Father is greater than He (John 14:28). I view this “sub role” as a necessary temporary test to see whether or not God could withstand everything that Satan could and would throw at Him. If God in the role of a man could pass this test, Satan would be defeated forever. Also, because of God’s willingness to do this, no human can stand before Him on Judgment Day and claim that God does not know what it’s like to be tempted to sin. Philippians 2:5-11 also describes Jesus’ willingness to lay aside all His authority as God in order to save us. The whole concept of God becoming man is unique. No other religion contains it…not even close to it. It is beyond remarkable!


  1. God the Father is the Creator of the universe. God exist before the universe exist, but Jesus the Son came with the universe and is God in the universe. God the creator exist before God the Son Jesus, that is why called God the Father and the other the Son.

  2. dscheer

    February 17, 2019 at 1:29 am

    No Jesus always was with the Father (John 17:5 and Micah 5:2).

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